Ok, this is either me being a stickler, or I'm just not fully aware of something. Before I ask this, please keep in mind, I am a rape victim so I'm not trying to manplain anything, I'm asking.
That sounds more like blackmail than rape...Though I'm not saying it's any better morally....I mean, even if you begrudgingly consent, you still consent....I'm just saying you've already put in writing in front of witnesses that you would let him have sex instead of being standed....I wonder how something like that would hold up in court.